Can you really buy a house by paying taxes on it after a foreclosure?
I heard that once you pay taxes on a house that is behind / behind them, then the house belongs to you. — Is that true in the province / state of Bexar / Texas? — Where is the trap? (In other words, if the home loan has never been paid, then you need the loan and pay for the house, or simply taxes and then all the money you need to keep the house and make sure that / etc?) — If this is true and is left in Texas, where he was going to know what properties have not paid your taxes? What should I consider when / if I had to do this? Please send me Links to help you! 🙂
It is not as easy as you think. If it were, everyone would be doing. There is much information on the web. Do a little research, if you're serious.